Originally Posted by
ccgideon
You have just brought up the very subject that has been bothering me thoughout this whole process. IMHO, if a stock or investment of some type cost a set amount, say $1,000, that same stock/investment would be worth the same value regardless of the currency used to purchase it, right? It would just either take more or fewer units of the particular currency used to buy the stock/investment. When I worked in Mexico the peco was 30:1,when I bought something valued at $5.00, I could use the $5USD or 1,500 pecos...either way the cost was the same. The only difference is that if something costs $5.00 I may be able to afford it where the average Mexican resident could not afford the equivalent 1,500 pecos. Does this make sense? Just my thoughts.