Steroid-induced diabetes - permanent or temporary?
Hi everyone,
First post here. I'm looking for people who have experience with steroid-induced hyperglycemia. I'm trying to figure out how to know if it's temporary or not. I'm wondering if anyone had any insight into my experience?
I had an organ transplant yonks ago, for just bad luck reasons. No diabetes or other health conditions. I've been on between 1mg and 5mg of prednisolone for 10 years. Recently, that was increased to 40mg to treat some acute rejection. A week or so later I presented to the ED with blood glucose reading of 28. I was immediately put on insulin as an inpatient, then given long and short acting insulin to use at home while self-funding Libre. The doctors don't know if it'll be temporary or if they've unmasked Type 1. But, GAD is negative. C-Peptide was around 650. No insulin antibodies. HbA1c levels probably contaminated by the prednisolone induced high blood sugar.
Do you know what else they might do to decide if I'm Type 1? I'm worried that I'm being diagnosed with something I don't have, and won't have a chance to prove it. I'd like to go off insulin once my pred is weaned down again, and measure my baseline glucose levels on a normal day. Do you know what the normal proceedure is?
I've found it quite okay to keep my levels between 4 and 10 (mostly under 20g carb per meal) and my pred is now down to 15mg per day, so the spike in the afternoon is less pronounced (and covered by my lunch time insulin dose).
What does someone without 'everyday' diabetes' glucose pattern look like if they are on insulin therapy? For instance, if you have temporary gestational diabetes, can the glucose pattern spike just as high and low and someone with Type 1? But then go back to normal when insulin is stopped?
Would love to hear other people's experiences. Thank you.
